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Indian Express
2 days ago
- General
- Indian Express
Daily subject-wise quiz : Environment and Geography MCQs on Elephants in India, Clarion-Clipperton Zone and more (Week 116)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today's subject quiz on Environment and Geography to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at With reference to the Elephants in India, consider the following statements: 1. Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme. 2. In north-eastern India, the elephant's range extends along the foothills of the Himalayas from the eastern border of Nepal through northern West Bengal to western Assam. 3. Elephants are protected under Schedule II species of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 4. As per the recent elephant census, there are zero elephants in Nilambur—Silent Valley—Coimbatore region. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Explanation — The Union Environment Ministry held a review of key initiatives under Project Elephant on Thursday at the 21st meeting of the project's steering committee, chaired by Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav. Phase-I of the synchronised elephant population estimation for the Northeastern states was completed, according to the ministry. — Project Elephant is a centrally supported plan, and the steering committee oversees its implementation, as well as problems such as elephant conservation and habitat protection. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — The last elephant census or estimating exercise was conducted in 2017, and it revealed that the country was home to around 29,964 elephants. Although a report on the next synchronised elephant census titled 'Status of Elephants in India 2022-23' was created, The Indian Express reported in October that it was delayed due to a delay in the census in the North-East and because it was an interim report. According to that report, the number of elephants has decreased by 20% over the previous five years. — The elephant is India's national heritage animal, classified as a Schedule I species under the Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Elephants in India — The elephant's range in north-east India runs along the Himalayan foothills from Nepal's eastern border to northern West Bengal to western Assam. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — Elephant populations in central India are very fragmented, with a few individuals straying into Chhattisgarh from Orissa, Jharkhand, and the southern section of West Bengal. — In northwestern India, the species is distributed in six scattered populations in the Himalayan foothills of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, extending from the Bahraich Forest Department's Katranighat Wildlife Sanctuary in the east to the Yamuna River in the west. — Southern India has eight primary clusters that are split from one another: Northern Karnataka, Crystalline of Karnataka—Western Ghats; Bhadra—Malnad; Brahmagiri—Nilgiris—Eastern Ghats; Nilambur—Silent Valley—Coimbatore; Anamalai—Parambikulam; Periyar—Srivilliputhur; and Agasthyamalai. Hence, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (Other Source: With reference to the 'tigers outside of tiger reserve', consider the following statements: 1. The scheme will be implemented by the Chief Wildlife Wardens of state forest departments, in close collaboration with the National Tiger Conservation Authority. 2. The scheme aims to manage conflicts more effectively through enhanced monitoring and protection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — With frequent human-tiger conflicts in various forest divisions of the country, the Union Environment Ministry has approved funds for a pilot plan called 'tigers outside of tiger reserve' to better manage such conflicts through greater surveillance and protection. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — According to official documents, the executive committee of the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), which is part of the Environment Ministry, approved in-principle funding for the scheme on a pilot basis for one year. The scheme will provide funds to 80 forest divisions across ten states that were initially identified based on data from recurring human-tiger conflicts. — This will be used for technical interventions to preserve and monitor tigers and co-predators, to strengthen forest managers to deal with conflict caused by technology, to collaborate with civil society and professional veterinarians, and to expand the prey base. — The initiative will be executed on the ground by state forest department Chief Wildlife Wardens, in close collaboration with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). When asked about the initial rollout of the pilot, a government official stated that the NTCA was finalising the list of forest and wildlife divisions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. With reference to the rare earth magnets, consider the following statements: 1. They are a crucial component in electric vehicle motors. 2. Russia controls over 90 per cent of global processing capacity for the magnets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — India stated it had communicated with China on the supply of rare earth magnets, as Beijing has imposed export limits. — China, which controls more than 90% of worldwide processing capacity for magnets used in autos, clean energy, and home appliances, imposed restrictions in April forcing companies to acquire import permits from Beijing. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — While rare earth magnets are essential components in electric vehicle motors, they are also required in equipment such as power windows and audio speakers found in gasoline or diesel-powered vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — According to industry estimates, India's car sector bought 460 tonnes of rare earth magnets, largely from China, in the fiscal year ending March 31, and plans to import 700 tonnes valued at $30 million this year. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to the tiger reserves, consider the following pairs: 1. Palamau Tiger Reserve – Mizoram 2. Sariska Tiger Reserve – Haryana 3. Madhav Tiger Reserve – Assam How many of the pairs given above are correctly marked? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Explanation Madhav Tiger Reserve is situated in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh in Shivpuri District, very close to the Shivpuri township This was notified as a National Park in the year 1958. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. (Other Source: The Banakacherla reservoir project was recently in the news. It is the water dispute between: (a) Goa and Maharashtra (b) Odisha and Telangana (c) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (d) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu Explanation — Telangana Chief Minister A Revanth Reddy has challenged former Chief Minister and Bharat Rashtra Samithi (BRS) leader K Chandrashekar Rao to a discussion in the state Assembly over the contentious Banakacherla reservoir project. It is the most recent water dispute between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. — The Banakacherla reservoir project aims to transform Andhra Pradesh's drought-prone Rayalaseema area into arable land. — According to the idea, the first phase would be to increase the capacity of the Polavaram Right Main Canal from 17,500 to 38,000 cusecs, allowing Godavari water to be transferred to Krishna. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Where is the Clarion-Clipperton Zone found? (a) In the Antarctic Ocean (b) In the low Earth orbit (LEO) where astronauts primarily travel (c) Between troposphere and stratosphere (d) In the Pacific Ocean Explanation — Scientists have been fascinated by the mystery of dark matter for decades, thinking that it uses gravitational attraction to hold galaxies together. Recently, an exciting discovery has shed light on another unseen phenomena: dark oxygen. — Dark oxygen is found well below the ocean's surface. A recent study published in Nature Geoscience reveals that oxygen is released from mineral deposits located 4,000 meters (13,000 feet) below the surface in the Pacific Ocean's Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ). — This depth is almost half of Mount Everest's height. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Consider the following pairs: 1. Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary : Sikkim 2. Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary – Maharashtra 3. Kuno National Park – Madhya Pradesh 4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala Which of the pairs given above are not correctly matched? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above Explanation — The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary renamed on 25 May 2004, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary or Hollongapar Reserve Forest, is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Jorhat district of Assam, India. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. These migratory birds, locally known as 'Kahuaipuina,' arrive in northeastern India, particularly in Manipur and Nagaland, in large numbers during October. Which birds are being referred to in the above lines? (a) Amur Falcons (b) Rosy Pelican (c) Black-crowned Night Heron (d) Siberian Cranes Explanation Amur Falcons (Falco amurensis) – These migratory visitors, locally known as 'Kahuaipuina,' arrive in northeastern India, particularly in Manipur and Nagaland, in large numbers during October. They are on their southbound migration from their breeding grounds in northern China, eastern Mongolia, and far eastern Russia. During their stopover, which lasts three to four weeks, the falcons build fat reserves by foraging on termites before continuing their journey to their wintering grounds in South Africa. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 115) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
Indian Express
2 days ago
- General
- Indian Express
Mains answer practice — GS 1 : Questions on evolution of yoga and Ken-Betwa River Link Project (Week 108)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative for the practice of Mains answer writing. It covers essential topics of static and dynamic parts of the UPSC Civil Services syllabus covered under various GS papers. This answer-writing practice is designed to help you as a value addition to your UPSC CSE Mains. Attempt today's answer writing on questions related to topics of GS-1 to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at The Ken-Betwa River Link Project represents a significant milestone in India's river interlinking initiatives, aimed at addressing water scarcity in drought-prone regions. Discuss its potential benefits and associated ecological and socio-economic challenges. Discuss the evolution of the term 'yoga' in Indian literature—from the Vedas and Upanishads to Patanjali's Yoga Sutra. Introduction — The introduction of the answer is essential and should be restricted to 3-5 lines. Remember, a one-liner is not a standard introduction. — It may consist of basic information by giving some definitions from the trusted source and authentic facts. Body — It is the central part of the answer and one should understand the demand of the question to provide rich content. — The answer must be preferably written as a mix of points and short paragraphs rather than using long paragraphs or just points. — Using facts from authentic government sources makes your answer more comprehensive. Analysis is important based on the demand of the question, but do not over analyse. — Underlining keywords gives you an edge over other candidates and enhances presentation of the answer. — Using flowcharts/tree-diagram in the answers saves much time and boosts your score. However, it should be used logically and only where it is required. Way forward/ conclusion — The ending of the answer should be on a positive note and it should have a forward-looking approach. However, if you feel that an important problem must be highlighted, you may add it in your conclusion. Try not to repeat any point from body or introduction. — You may use the findings of reports or surveys conducted at national and international levels, quotes etc. in your answers. Self Evaluation — It is the most important part of our Mains answer writing practice. UPSC Essentials will provide some guiding points or ideas as a thought process that will help you to evaluate your answers. QUESTION 1: The Ken-Betwa River Link Project represents a significant milestone in India's river interlinking initiatives, aimed at addressing water scarcity in drought-prone regions. Discuss its potential benefits and associated ecological and socio-economic challenges. Note: This is not a model answer. It only provides you with thought process which you may incorporate into the answers. Introduction: — The Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) envisions moving water from the Ken to the Betwa rivers, both of which are tributaries of the Yamuna. — The Ken-Betwa Link Canal will be 221 km long, including a 2-kilometer tunnel. According to the Jal Shakti Ministry, the project will provide yearly irrigation to 10.62 lakh hectares (8.11 lakh ha in MP and 2.51 lakh ha in UP), supply drinking water to about 62 lakh people, and create 103 MW of hydropower and 27 MW of solar power. Body: You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer: — The Ken-Betwa Link Project comprises two phases. Phase I will comprise the construction of the Daudhan Dam complex and its component units, including the Low Level Tunnel, High Level Tunnel, Ken-Betwa Link Canal, and power plants. Phase II will include three components: Lower Orr Dam, Bina Complex Project, and Kotha Barrage. — The notion of joining the Ken and the Betwa received a significant boost in August 2005, when the Centre and the two states signed a tripartite memorandum of understanding for the creation of a detailed project report (DPR). In 2008, the Centre designated the KBLP as a National Project. Later, it was added to the Prime Minister's package for the development of the drought-prone Bundelkhand region. — The project is in Bundelkhand, which includes 13 districts in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. According to the Jal Shakti Ministry, the project will greatly assist the water-stressed region, particularly the districts of Panna, Tikamgarh, Chhatarpur, Sagar, Damoh, Datia, Vidisha, Shivpuri, and Raisen in Madhya Pradesh, and Banda, Mahoba, Jhansi, and Lalitpur in Uttar Pradesh. — 'It will pave the way for more river interlinking projects to ensure that scarcity of water does not become an inhibitor for development in the country,' according to a press release from the Ministry. Conclusion: — The river-linking project has come under considerable examination for its possible environmental and socioeconomic impact. The project will involve extensive deforestation in the heart of the Panna National Park and Tiger Reserve. — PM Modi recently laid the foundation stone for the Daudhan Dam. Daudhan Dam is 2,031 metres long, with 1,233 metres being earthen and the remaining 798 metres being concrete. The dam's height will be 77 meters. According to the Jal Shakti Ministry, the project will sink around 9,000 hectares of land, affecting ten communities. — It is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for River Interlinking, which was created in 1980. This plan includes 16 projects under its peninsular component, including the KBLP. Aside from this, 14 linkages are envisioned in the Himalayan Rivers Development Plan. (Source: PM Modi lays foundation stone: What is the Ken-Betwa river linking project, environmental concerns around it by Harikishan Sharma and Nikhil Ghanekar) Points to Ponder Other river linking projects in India What are the project's likely environmental and social impacts? Related Previous Year Questions The interlinking of rivers can provide viable solutions to the multi-dimensional inter-related problems of droughts, floods, and interrupted navigation. Critically examine. (2020) The groundwater potential of the Gangetic valley is on a serious decline. How may it affect the food security of India? (2024) QUESTION 2: Discuss the evolution of the term 'yoga' in Indian literature—from the Vedas and Upanishads to Patanjali's Yoga Sutra. Note: This is not a model answer. It only provides you with thought process which you may incorporate into the answers. Introduction: — Yoga originated in ancient India. However, it is impossible to determine exactly how ancient it is. While the term '5,000-year-old tradition' is frequently used, the existing evidence does not support such specificity. — The term 'yoga' appears in the Vedic corpus (1,500-500 BCE), the oldest (surviving) literature from the subcontinent. However, it appears in a setting that is very different from postural or even meditational exercise, as it is commonly understood today. Body: You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer: — Two key pieces of archaeological evidence are often cited as proof of yoga's antiquity. (i) The first is a tiny staetite seal unearthed from Mojenjodaro, an Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) site in Pakistan. According to historian Alistair Shearer's book The Story Of Yoga: From Ancient India To The Modern West (2020), the seal from around 2,500-2,400 BCE depicts a seated figure with legs crossed in the mulabandhasana posture, which was later popular among tantric yogis. (ii) The other, more recent, archaeological find is from Balathal, Rajasthan, one of the chalcolithic Banas culture's 90 or so sites. A nearly 2,700-year-old skeleton was excavated from the site 'sitting in the samadhi position,' a stance 'that many yogis adopt for meditation and is also assumed at the time of their burial,' according to Shearer. — The Mahabharata, written spanning six centuries from 300 BCE to 300 CE, is where yoga is employed in the way that we know it today. 'Some of these citations [in the Mahabharata] refer to yoga in a philosophical sense,' whilst others employ it 'when describing arduous physical penances and austerities performed by holy men,' according to Shearer. Contemporary and subsequent writings, such as the Upanishads, use the phrase similarly. — According to one school of thought, yoga has no Vedic beginnings and instead derives from heterodox traditions of the first millennium BCE (and earlier), particularly Buddhism and Jainism. 'The unifying feature of this freelance religious movement was the practice of yoga,' Vivian Worthington asserts in A History of Yoga (1982). Yoga is mentioned in a variety of Buddhist and Jain scriptures. — The Yoga Sutra of Maharishi Patanjali is the most well-known text on the subject, having been written around 350 CE and being the oldest text dedicated completely to it. Most experts agree that this literature affected their current knowledge of yoga. Conclusion: — None of the sources listed above provide definitive, empirical answers about the origins of yoga. This is largely due to the fact that India lacks a history-writing tradition like the West, where a clear distinction is made between history, which is founded on empirical data, and myth, whose credibility stems from its meaning rather than its accuracy. — There are no contemporary sources on yoga that can provide empirical information on its origins. While examining textual evidence can provide insights about the changing meaning of the term and the growth of the practice, it cannot definitively pinpoint when yoga originated. (Source: International Yoga Day: Why is it hard to pinpoint the origin of yoga?) Points to Ponder Read more about Yoga Read about Upanishads and Yoga Sutra of Maharishi Patanjali Related Previous Year Questions Underline the changes in the field of society and economy from the Rig Vedic to the Later Vedic period. (2024) Indian philosophy and tradition played a significant role in conceiving and shaping the monuments and their art in India. Discuss. (2020) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 3 (Week 108) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 3 (Week 107) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 2 (Week 108) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 2 (Week 107) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 1 (Week 106) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 1 (Week 107) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
Indian Express
3 days ago
- Business
- Indian Express
Daily subject-wise quiz : Economy MCQs on GENIUS Act, hydrogen-based microgrid system and more (Week 116)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today's subject quiz on Economy to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at With reference to the Indian rupee, consider the following statements: 1. A free fall in the rupee's value is primarily prevented by interventions from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). 2. A weak balance of payments position supports the stability of the rupee. 3. External factors, such as the performance of the US dollar, do not affect the value of the Indian rupee. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — India's foreign exchange reserves increased by $1.51 billion every week, reaching $658.09 billion on November 29. This reversed an eight-week drop from the all-time high of $704.89 billion set on September 27. — In the almost two months since September 27, not only have forex reserves fallen by $46.79 billion, but the rupee has also weakened from 83.67 to 84.66 against the US dollar. — However, the depletion or accretion of forex reserves is not solely due to FPIs withdrawing or putting money into Indian markets. — Reserve movements are driven by the country's external balance of payments (BoP) transactions, including current and capital. Current account transactions primarily include the export and import of commodities and services. A good balance of payments situation helps the currency remain stable. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — In terms of merchandise trade, India has always been a net importer. In 2023-24, its merchandise exports were $441.48 billion, far less than imports of $683.55 billion, resulting in a $242.07 billion trade imbalance. — A free fall in the rupee's value is primarily prevented by interventions from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence, statement 1 is correct. — External factors, such as the performance of the US dollar, also affect the value of the Indian rupee. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to the hydrogen-based microgrid system, consider the following statements: 1. It uses water to produce hydrogen through electrolysis. 2. Toyota Kirloskar Motor and Ohmium International, based in the United States, have announced plans to collaborate on the development of a scalable green hydrogen-based microgrid. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — Toyota Kirloskar Motor and Ohmium International, a US-based company that manufactures electrolysers in India, have announced plans to collaborate on the development of a scalable green hydrogen-powered microgrid system. — Toyota will contribute its global expertise in fuel cell technology, while Ohmium will bring its electrolyser capabilities to investigate the potential of self-contained water-to-hydrogen-to-electricity systems for applications other than mobility, such as domestic gensets and hard-to-abate industrial sectors. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — A hydrogen-based microgrid generates hydrogen from water via electrolysis, which is either stored or fed into a fuel cell to create electricity on demand. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — Toyota's first-of-its-kind collaboration with Ohmium will allow the company to investigate the role of hydrogen in developing a broader energy ecosystem, not just for transportation, but also for decentralised, off-grid power generation. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The Union Cabinet approved a proposal to set up a regional wing of the Peru-based International Potato Center (CIP), a premier research-for-development organisation with a focus on the potato and sweet potato at: (a) Lucknow (b) Hyderabad (c) Bikaner (d) Agra Explanation — The Union Cabinet authorised a plan to establish a regional wing of the Peru-based International Potato Centre (CIP), a leading research-for-development agency with a focus on the potato and sweet potato. — The projected CPI-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) will be built in Singna, Agra district, and will serve not just farmers in India's potato belt states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, but also South Asian countries. About International Potato Center (CIP) — The CIP, headquartered in Lima, Peru, was created in 1971 to specialise on potato, sweet potato, and Andean roots and tubers. Notably, the potato crop is indigenous to the Peruvian-Bolivian Andes of Latin America and was spread throughout the world by the Spaniards and Portuguese who invaded the area. Potatoes reached India in the 17th century. — The CIP operates across South America, Africa, and Asia. It began operations in India in 1975, when it signed an initial arrangement with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) for potato and sweet potato cooperation. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. With reference to the wilful defaulter, consider the following statements: 1. A 'wilful default' occurs when a borrower fails to complete their repayment commitments to the lender despite having the capacity to do so. 2. The number of wilful defaulters has decreased from March 2020 to March 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — A staggering 2,664 corporates have been classified as wilful defaulters, failing to repay bank loans despite having the means to do so, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). — According to RBI data, the number of wilful defaulters increased from 2,154 in March 2020 to 2,664 in March 2024, while the amount due increased from Rs 1,52,860 crore to Rs 1,96,441 crore over the last four years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — These firms have claimed many thousand crores in default and other obligations before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). According to the RBI classification, a 'wilful default' occurs when a borrower fails to complete their repayment commitments to the lender despite having the capacity to do so. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — A wilful default happens when the borrower has not utilised the finance from the lender for the specific purpose for which finance was availed of, and has diverted the funds for other purposes, or siphoned off funds, or disposed of or removed the movable fixed assets or immovable property given for the purpose of securing a term loan without the knowledge of the bank. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Consider the following statements about opinion trading: 1. India has a law which can directly deal with opinion trading. 2. The platform providing opinion trading allows users to wager on the outcome of future events. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — Opinion trading services allow users to wager on the fate of future events. The business is expanding rapidly, attracting money and an estimated 5 crore users, but it appears to have mostly flown under the radar in India, unregulated. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — Opinion trading systems look to be betting platforms, and some in government share this perspective. However, investors and creators say that making money on these platforms requires a significant amount of skill. — India's sector includes companies such as Gurugram-based Probo and MPL Opinio. The former asks questions about a wide range of topics, including sports, elections, and cryptocurrency, whereas the latter exclusively asks about cricket matches. — India currently lacks a law that can deal directly with opinion trading platforms such as Probo and MPL Opinio – however, in foreign markets such as the United States and Australia, where this industry is more mature, governments have decided to treat wagers as securities, putting the responsibility for regulation on the stock market regulator. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. — In India, the primary legal lens through which internet games are viewed is whether they are games of chance or skill. In games of chance, no one can have a competitive advantage over another because the outcome is entirely dependent on luck. However, in skill games, considerable preparation may be necessary to put someone in a better position to make a forecast. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Consider the following statements: 1. India's own (domestically formulated) poverty line in 2009, before the Tendulkar recommendation, was Rs 17 a day per person for urban areas and Rs 12 a day per person for rural areas. 2. In 2009, Tendulkar raised the poverty line to Rs 29 per day per person in urban areas and Rs 22 per day per person in rural areas, and later to Rs 36 and Rs 30, respectively, in 2011-12. 3. In 2014, Rangarajan recommended raising the domestic poverty line to Rs 47 per person per day in urban areas and Rs 33 in rural areas. Which of the above given statements is/are true? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation — Historically, India had been a leader in poverty estimation and India's poverty line methodology and data collection influenced the rest of the world in how to study poverty. — However, India's last officially recognised poverty line was in 2011-12. It was built on a 2009 formula suggested by a committee led by noted Delhi School economist Suresh Tendulkar. Since then, there has been no update on the method. — In 2014, a committee led by former RBI Governor C Rangarajan was commissioned to provide a new method, but this recommendation was never officially accepted. — Since then, thanks to gaps and changes in relevant data collection, India has increasingly used either the Niti Aayog multidimensional poverty index (which is fundamentally different in how it measures poverty) or relied on the World Bank's poverty line. What were India's domestic poverty lines in the past? — India's own (domestically formulated) poverty line in 2009, before the Tendulkar recommendation, was Rs 17 a day per person for urban areas and Rs 12 a day per person for rural areas. — In 2009, Tendulkar raised the poverty line to Rs 29 per day per person in urban areas and Rs 22 per day per person in rural areas, and later to Rs 36 and Rs 30, respectively, in 2011-12. — In 2014, Rangarajan recommended raising the domestic poverty line to Rs 47 per person per day in urban areas and Rs 33 in rural areas. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Which of the following documents is a certificate of Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) issued by an employer to a salaried employee to help with accurate filing of Income Tax Returns (ITR)? (a) Form 15G (b) Form 16 (c) Form 26AS (d) Form 10E Explanation — Tax filing season begins for the financial year 2024-25, and the assessment year 2025-26 has officially commenced, with salaried employees in India having received their Form 16 documentation. — There are new changes in Form 16 that have been announced in the Union Budget 2025 to improve transparency by giving a detailed explanation of compensation components, tax-exempt allowances, and deductions, as well as which salary perks are subject to taxation. What is Form 16? — Form 16 is a TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) certificate provided by employers to salaried employees, allowing them to accurately submit their Income Tax Returns (ITR) and comply with tax requirements. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. With reference to GENIUS Act, consider the following statements: 1. The passing of the bill signifies a major shift in the European Union's approach to digital assets. 2. This bill aims to regulate stable coins. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — The US Senate passed the GENIUS Act Bill on Wednesday with a vote of 68-30 in a major boost for stablecoins — reserve-backed cryptocurrencies that have received an impetus from the Donald Trump administration in America. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 115) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. Manas Srivastava is currently working as Senior Copy Editor with The Indian Express (digital) and leads a unique initiative of IE - UPSC Essentials. He majorly writes on UPSC, other competitive exams and education-related projects. In the past, Manas has represented India at the G-20 Youth Summit in Mexico. He is a former member of the Youth Council, GOI. A two-time topper/gold medallist in History (both in graduation and post-graduation) from Delhi University, he has mentored and taught UPSC aspirants for more than four years. His diverse role in The Indian Express consists of writing, editing, anchoring/ hosting, interviewing experts, and curating and simplifying news for the benefit of students. He hosts the YouTube talk show called 'Art and Culture with Devdutt Pattanaik' and a LIVE series on Instagram and YouTube called 'You Ask We Answer'.His talks on 'How to read a newspaper' focus on newspaper reading as an essential habit for students. His articles and videos aim at finding solutions to the general queries of students and hence he believes in being students' editor, preparing them not just for any exam but helping them to become informed citizens. This is where he makes his teaching profession meet journalism. He is also the editor of UPSC Essentials' monthly magazine for the aspirants. He is a recipient of the Dip Chand Memorial Award, the Lala Ram Mohan Prize and Prof. Papiya Ghosh Memorial Prize for academic excellence. He was also awarded the University's Post-Graduate Scholarship for pursuing M.A. in History where he chose to specialise in Ancient India due to his keen interest in Archaeology. He has also successfully completed a Certificate course on Women's Studies by the Women's Studies Development Centre, DU. As a part of N.S.S in the past, Manas has worked with national and international organisations and has shown keen interest and active participation in Social Service. He has led and been a part of projects involving areas such as gender sensitisation, persons with disability, helping slum dwellers, environment, adopting our heritage programme. He has also presented a case study on 'Psychological stress among students' at ICSQCC- Sri Lanka. As a compere for seminars and other events he likes to keep his orating hobby alive. His interests also lie in International Relations, Governance, Social issues, Essays and poetry. ... Read More
Indian Express
3 days ago
- Politics
- Indian Express
50 Years of Emergency: From causes to constitutional implications
UPSC Issue at a Glance is an initiative by UPSC Essentials aimed at streamlining your preparation for the prelims and mains examinations by focusing on current issues making headlines. Every Thursday, cover a new topic in a lucid way. This week, we explain to you how the national emergency of 1975 unfolded, its causes and constitutional lessons. Let's get started. If you missed the previous UPSC Issue at a Glance | How did the Israel-Iran conflict escalate? A look from history to its impact from the Indian Express, read it here. The Emergency was imposed exactly 50 years ago on June 25, 1975. The 21-month period that followed was marked by the suspension of civil liberties, curtailment of press freedom, mass arrests, cancellation of elections, and rule by decree. In this week's Issue at a Glance, we break down the historical event in terms of its causes, constitutional provisions, and impact from a broader perspective. (Relevance: UPSC Syllabus General Studies-II: Constitution of India—features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure, Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure. UPSC aspirants will also find it useful in Essays, and Current affairs for their Personality tests.) In the context of modern Indian Political history the 'Emergency' refers to the period from June 25, 1975 to March 21, 1977, during which the government of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi used special provisions in the Constitution to impose sweeping executive and legislative consequences on the country. However, emergency provisions contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Articles 352 to 360, talk about the three different types of emergencies. Notably, these provisions are borrowed from the German Weimar constitution. Let's understand these legal and constitutional sanctions that the emergency has in India. Constitutional Provisions related to Emergencies in India 📌Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the 'proclamation of emergency'. 📌Article 353 provides provisions about the 'Effect of Proclamation of Emergency'. 📌Article 354 talks about the 'application of provisions relating to the distribution of revenues while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation'. 📌Article 355 deals with the 'duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance'. 📌Article 356 provides 'provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States'. 📌Article 357 deals with the 'Exercise of legislative powers under Proclamation issued under article 356'. 📌Article 358 frees the state of all limitations imposed by Article 19 ('Right to freedom') as soon as an emergency is imposed. 📌Article 359 provides provision with regard to the 'suspension of the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III during emergencies'. 📌Under Article 360 provisions about the financial emergency are provided. How many times has an emergency been imposed in India? Till now, three times an emergency has been imposed in India: 1. The first time the emergency was imposed was on October 26, 1962, on the grounds of war. 2. The second emergency was imposed on December 3, 1971, on the grounds of war. 3. The third-time emergency was proclaimed on June 25, 1975, due to an 'internal disturbance.' (Note: This ground of 'internal disturbance' was removed by the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.) Various provisions mentioned in Part XVIII of the Constitution provide for three types of emergencies: National Emergency (Articles 352-354, 358-359), President's rule (Articles 355–357), Financial Emergency (Article 360). National Emergency Under Article 352 of the Constitution, the President may, on the advice of the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister, issue a proclamation of emergency if the security of India or any part of the country is threatened by 'war or external aggression, or armed rebellion'. (Note: In 1975, instead of armed rebellion, the ground of 'internal disturbance' was available to the government to proclaim an emergency.) This type of emergency is popularly referred to as a 'national emergency'. President's Rule According to Article 356 (1), if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may by Proclamation— (a) assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or any body or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State; (b) declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament; (c) make such incidental and consequential provisions as appear to the President to be necessary or desirable for giving effect to the objects of the Proclamation, including provisions for suspending in whole or in part the operation of any provisions of this Constitution relating to any body or authority in the State. Financial Emergency Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides for financial emergency. It says, 'If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to that effect.' Various political and social circumstances in India in 1974 and early 1975 led to the proclamation of the National Emergency. Some of these events were: 📍JP movement: Vikas Pathak writes- 'Early in 1974, a student movement called Navnirman (Regeneration) began in Gujarat against the Congress government of Chimanbhai Patel, which was seen as corrupt. As the protests became violent, Patel had to resign and President's Rule was imposed. Navnirman inspired a students' movement in Bihar against corruption and poor governance, and the ABVP and socialist organisations came together to form the Chhatra Sangharsh Samiti. The students asked Jayaprakash Narayan, a Gandhian and hero of the Quit India Movement, to lead them. He agreed with two conditions — that the movement would be non-violent and pan-Indian, and aim to cleanse the country of corruption and misgovernance. Thereafter, the students' movement came to be called the 'JP movement'. On June 5, during a speech in Patna's historic Gandhi Maidan, JP gave a call for 'Sampoorna Kranti', or total revolution. By the end of the year, JP had got letters of support from across India, and he convened a meeting of opposition parties in Delhi. He travelled across the country in January and February 1975. JP's rallies invoked the power of the people with the rousing slogan, 'Sinhasan khaali karo, ke janata aati hai (Vacate the throne, for the people are coming)'. 📍Railway Strike of 1974: In May 1974, the socialist leader George Fernandes led an unprecedented strike of railway workers that paralysed the Indian Railways for three weeks. 📍Raj Narain verdict: On June 12, 1975, Justice Jagmohanlal Sinha of Allahabad High Court delivered a historic verdict in a petition filed by Raj Narain, convicting Indira Gandhi of electoral malpractice, and striking down her election from Rae Bareli. On appeal, the Supreme Court gave the Prime Minister partial relief — she could attend Parliament but could not vote. Late in the evening of June 25, 1975, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, acting on the advice of the Prime Minister, issued a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352(1) of the Constitution, which at that time empowered him to do so on grounds of threat to the security of the nation from 'war or external aggression' or 'internal disturbance'. (Note: The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 subsequently replaced the words 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.) After the national emergency was declared, significant changes occurred in the country since the declaration of emergency converted the federal structure into a de facto unitary one as the Union acquired the right to give any direction to state governments, which, though not suspended, came under the complete control of the Centre. Newspapers were subjected to pre-censorship. UNI and PTI were merged into a state-controlled agency called Samachar. 'Almost all opposition leaders, including JP, were detained. About 36,000 people were put in jail under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA).'-Vikas Pathak of the Indian Express wrote. The national emergency of 1975 brought about numerous changes in various aspects of India's democracy. Some of the major constitutional changes made during the national emergency of 1975 were: 📍38th and 39th Constitutional Amendments: With the opposition in jail, Parliament passed The Constitution (Thirty-eighth Amendment) Act that barred judicial review of the Emergency, and The Constitution (Thirty-ninth Amendment) Act placed the election of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, and Speaker beyond the jurisdiction of courts. 📍42nd Constitutional Amendment: The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act made changes to a range of laws, taking away the judiciary's right to hear election petitions, widening the authority of the Union to encroach on State subjects, gave Parliament unbridled power to amend the Constitution with no judicial review possible, and made any law passed by Parliament to implement any or all directive principles of state policy immune to judicial review. Post-emergency The emergency was lifted early in 1977 amd the Janata Party — the product of the merger of the Jana Sangh, Congress (O), the socialists and Bharatiya Lok Dal — came to power, and Morarji Desai became India's first non-Congress PM. From constitutional amendments to the emergence of a coalition government, the aftermath of the national emergency introduced new social forces and led to the decentralization of power. Some of the major constitutional changes post-emergency were: 📍44th Constitutional Amendment: The Janata government reversed many of the constitutional changes effected by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. It did not do away with the provision of the emergency, but made it extremely difficult to impose for the future. It made judicial review of a proclamation of emergency possible again, and mandated that every proclamation of emergency be laid before both Houses of Parliament within a month of the proclamation. Unless it was approved by both Houses by a special majority — a majority of the total strength of the House and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting — the proclamation would lapse. The 44th Amendment removed 'internal disturbance' as a ground for the imposition of an emergency, meaning that armed rebellion alone would now be a ground, apart from war and external aggression. However, the 44th Amendment left the words 'secular' and 'socialist', inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment, untouched. 📍Shah Commission and its report: The Shah Commission, constituted by the Janata government to report on the imposition of the Emergency and its adverse effects, submitted a damning report that found the decision to be unilateral, and adversely affecting civil liberties. History offers invaluable lessons on how to keep from repeating the mistakes that led to the lowest points in our past. The imposition of the Emergency is one such event in Indian political history that continues to guide present and future generations, given its implications for democracy and the right of citizens to live with dignity. The lesson from the 1975 emergency is that to protect democracy, it's necessary to guarantee accountability and rule of law through the independent judiciary, free press, political opposition, and, most importantly, active civil society. Apurva Vishwanath of The Indian Express writes in 'How Indira Gandhi used the Constitution to subvert democracy'- 'Democracy is a legal construct that is held together through collective adherence to constitutional requirements that ensure accountability and the rule of law. They are drawn from the functioning of the political Opposition, an independent judiciary, a free press, and a robust civil society.' Prelims (1) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then ( UPSC CSE 2018) (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved. (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (d) the President can make laws relating to that State. (2) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? (UPSC CSE 2017) 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (3) Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (UPSC CSE 2017) (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries (c) Right to work, education and public assistance (d) Securing living wages and human conditions of work to workers. (4) Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2019) 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Under what circumstances can the Financial Emergency be proclaimed by the President of India? What consequences follow when such a declaration remains in force? (UPSC CSE 2018) (Sources: Explained: The story of the Emergency, Emergency and its lessons, How Indira Gandhi used the Constitution to subvert democracy, Constitution of India, 49 years of Emergency: Here is what happened over the two years that changed India's history) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – Indian Express UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at Roshni Yadav is a Deputy Copy Editor with The Indian Express. She is an alumna of the University of Delhi and Jawaharlal Nehru University, where she pursued her graduation and post-graduation in Political Science. She has over five years of work experience in ed-tech and media. At The Indian Express, she writes for the UPSC section. Her interests lie in national and international affairs, governance, economy, and social issues. You can contact her via email: ... Read More
Indian Express
3 days ago
- Science
- Indian Express
Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on radiation leak threat, LVM3, GSaaS and more (Week 116)
UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today's subject quiz on Science and Technology to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for June 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at QUESTION 1 With reference to the LVM3, consider the following statements: 1. It is a single-stage vehicle with one solid strap-on motor and one liquid core stage. 2. It is a heavy lift launch vehicle of ISRO which can only lift upto 500 kg spacecraft, with a launching capability to GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) cost-effectively. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — ISRO's recent call to private enterprises to build India's heaviest rocket is a long-awaited move towards increasing private sector participation in the country's space effort. It would also help India get a foothold in the international space sector, which is quickly expanding due to rising demand for satellite launches. — LVM3 has three stages: two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110), and a high-thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. — The S200 solid motor is one of the world's largest solid boosters, containing 204 tonnes of solid propellant. The liquid L110 stage employs a dual liquid engine configuration with 115 tonnes of liquid propellant, and the C25 Cryogenic upper stage employs the wholly indigenous high thrust cryogenic engine (CE20) with a fuel loading of 28 tonnes. — LVM3 is ISRO's latest heavy-lift launch vehicle, designed to send 4000 kg spacecraft to GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) in a cost-effective manner. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. (Other Source: QUESTION 2 Consider the following statements about neutron stars: 1. They are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the beginning of a massive star's life in a supernova explosion. 2. They constantly gain energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — Neutron stars are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the end of a massive star's life in a supernova explosion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. — Sometimes, neutron stars orbit each other in binary systems. — These systems constantly lose energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — Researchers may now examine the physical characteristics of the universe's most severe states because of these mergers. For instance, heavy metals like gold are formed under the circumstances of these high-energy collisions. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. QUESTION 3 Consider the following statements: 1. It rotates backwards, from east to west. 2. It is the largest of Pluto's five moons. 3. The moon's orbit around Pluto takes around 6.4 Earth days. 4. The same surfaces of this moon and Pluto always face each other, a phenomenon called mutual tidal locking. The above mentioned statements refer to: (a) Herse (b) Nix (c) Charon (d) Hydra Explanation — Charon is the largest of Pluto's five moons. Charon is the largest known satellite in terms of its parent planet, measuring half the size of Pluto. — Charon and Pluto's surfaces are always facing one other, which is known as mutual tidal locking. — Charon orbits Pluto every 6.4 Earth days. Charon is so large in comparison to Pluto that the two are sometimes considered a double dwarf planet system. — Charon does not rise or set, but instead hovers over the same point on Pluto's surface, with the same side always facing Pluto. It rotates backwards, from east to west. — Charon was found in June 1978 by James Christy and Robert Harrington at the United States Naval Observatory in Flagstaff, Arizona, roughly six miles from the Lowell Observatory, which discovered Pluto. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. (Other Source: QUESTION 4 Which of the following is/ are considered a ground station as a service (GSaaS)? 1. Satellite control 2. Telemetry and tracking 3. Space data reception 4. Space situational awareness Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation — According to a consultation document published by the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe), the national agency responsible for regulating and marketing the private space industry, it is exploring opportunities for private operators to enter ground segments. — Ground stations are essentially ground-based antennas that help in communicating with the satellites. — According to the document, the ground station as a service (GSaaS) sector, which provides pay-per-use services such as satellite control, telemetry and tracking, space data reception, and space situational awareness, is expected to rise 30% by 2033, from $0.14 billion to $2.5 billion. — This is consistent with the government's objective of increasing India's participation in the global commercial space market from 2% to 8% by 2033. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. QUESTION 5 The Vera C Rubin Observatory was recently in the news. It is located in: (a) India (b) Russia (c) Chile (d) Canada Explanation — The Vera C Rubin Observatory in Chile has unveiled its first spectacular photographs, demonstrating the strength of its 3,200-megapixel digital camera, which is the largest ever created. The photos, captured during testing in April after the telescope's construction was completed, hint at a new era of sky surveys. — One spectacular image depicts the Trifid and Lagoon Nebulae in a star-forming area of the Milky Way. The image, made up of 678 monochrome exposures taken with four different filters, exhibits rich, vibrant detail after just over seven hours of observation. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. QUESTION 6 Which of the following is not a NASA Mission? (a) Europa Clipper (b) JUICE Mission (c) Lucy Mission (d) Artemis II Explanation According to 'ESA's Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer, Juice, will make detailed observations of the giant gas planet and its three large ocean-bearing moons – Ganymede, Callisto and Europa – with a suite of remote sensing, geophysical and in situ instruments. The mission will characterise these moons as both planetary objects and possible habitats, explore Jupiter's complex environment in depth, and study the wider Jupiter system as an archetype for gas giants across the Universe.' Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. QUESTION 7 Consider the following statements regarding nuclear devices and chain reactions: 1. The release of energy in a nuclear device results from the completion of a chain reaction in fissile material. 2. A chain reaction in fissile material can be initiated accidentally under high stress, such as during a missile or bomb strike. 3. The initiation of a nuclear chain reaction requires very precise conditions and processes. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation How nuclear weapons are different from other bombs —A nuclear bomb is very different from the traditional explosives and chemicals used in warfare. Traditional bombs use a variety of chemicals that are generally designed to explode on impact, like when they are dropped. These chemical explosives can go off in other circumstances as well, like when they are exposed to heat or friction. These are explosive in themselves, and can get triggered and cause damage even when they are not used in the way they are designed to. Specifically, stored chemical explosives can lead to blasts when these are struck by other weapons. —Nuclear weapons, or nuclear material, do not behave like that. A nuclear bomb causes damage not by exploding the way traditional bombs do, but by releasing very high amounts of energy in a very short span of time. This large amount of energy sets off a series of processes that cause widespread damage. —Nuclear weapons are designed to detonate mid-air, not on impact like traditional explosives. They release a massive amount of energy in a few milliseconds, which heats up the surrounding air to millions of degrees Celsius, leading to the formation of what are known as blast waves, an expanding bubble of extremely hot air. Most of the damage is caused by these blast waves. —A nuclear explosion also releases electromagnetic radiations of different kinds, and these also cause a lot of destruction. —The release of energy from a nuclear device is the result of completion of the chain reaction in the fissile material. The initiation of the chain reaction requires a very precise set of processes to be followed and very precise conditions. These precise conditions cannot be met accidentally, or when the fissile material is under some kind of stress, like when it is struck by a missile or a bomb. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. The theme for National Science Day 2025 was: (a) Living in Space (b) Global Science for Global Wellbeing (c) Indigenous Technologies for VIKSIT BHARAT (d) Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for VIKSIT BHARAT Explanation — The theme for this year's National Science Day was 'Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for VIKSIT BHARAT.' Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 116) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 115) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 115) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. Manas Srivastava is currently working as Senior Copy Editor with The Indian Express (digital) and leads a unique initiative of IE - UPSC Essentials. He majorly writes on UPSC, other competitive exams and education-related projects. In the past, Manas has represented India at the G-20 Youth Summit in Mexico. He is a former member of the Youth Council, GOI. A two-time topper/gold medallist in History (both in graduation and post-graduation) from Delhi University, he has mentored and taught UPSC aspirants for more than four years. His diverse role in The Indian Express consists of writing, editing, anchoring/ hosting, interviewing experts, and curating and simplifying news for the benefit of students. He hosts the YouTube talk show called 'Art and Culture with Devdutt Pattanaik' and a LIVE series on Instagram and YouTube called 'You Ask We Answer'.His talks on 'How to read a newspaper' focus on newspaper reading as an essential habit for students. His articles and videos aim at finding solutions to the general queries of students and hence he believes in being students' editor, preparing them not just for any exam but helping them to become informed citizens. This is where he makes his teaching profession meet journalism. He is also the editor of UPSC Essentials' monthly magazine for the aspirants. He is a recipient of the Dip Chand Memorial Award, the Lala Ram Mohan Prize and Prof. Papiya Ghosh Memorial Prize for academic excellence. He was also awarded the University's Post-Graduate Scholarship for pursuing M.A. in History where he chose to specialise in Ancient India due to his keen interest in Archaeology. He has also successfully completed a Certificate course on Women's Studies by the Women's Studies Development Centre, DU. As a part of N.S.S in the past, Manas has worked with national and international organisations and has shown keen interest and active participation in Social Service. He has led and been a part of projects involving areas such as gender sensitisation, persons with disability, helping slum dwellers, environment, adopting our heritage programme. He has also presented a case study on 'Psychological stress among students' at ICSQCC- Sri Lanka. As a compere for seminars and other events he likes to keep his orating hobby alive. His interests also lie in International Relations, Governance, Social issues, Essays and poetry. ... Read More
